I've read that in case of a mixed marriage where the WNI spouse passes, the WNA has one year to sell any real property, for example a house, owned by the deceased. However, in a Muslim mixed marriage (ie, most of them here), wouldn't sharia law apply to the estate, granting the WNA, if male, only a 50% interest in the house? A rather tough thing to sell, it would seem. Is there something I'm missing here? In the case where the WNA funded the acquisition of the house, would it therefore make sense to make a loan agreement so that this money could be repaid first out of the estate (presumably by selling the house), before the sharia division?